I hope people understand the implications of what we’ve done.
With multiple independent labs, we’ve conducted the exact same experiments as are conducted by virologists — wherein they claim the results of the experiment demonstrate both the presence and pathogenicity of a virus, except we DID NOT have any human sample (meaning no possible source of a virus) and we achieved the same results, repeatedly.
Think about what that means for virology’s foundational “evidence.”
We conducted the exact same cell-culture isolation technique 90 times, EXCEPT we DID NOT include a human sample (which they say contains viruses).
We used one of the most robust cell lines — Human Embryonic Kidney Cells, with the exact same antibiotic and serum concentration.
Each time, we achieved the exact same cytopathic effect (CPE, or cellular breakdown). This CPE is what virologists point to as proof of viruses. And we did it multiple times, without any human sample — meaning no possible source of a “virus” — and got the exact same results.
A separate independent lab then conducted Transmission Electron Microscopy on the samples atter CPE.
In the TEM images, we found:
HIV (same size, shape)
SARS-CoV-2 (same size, shape)
Measles (same size, shape)
Again, this is without ANY human sample at all, which means no possible source of any “virus.”
So, in layman’s terms, what does all of this mean?
This means that the foundational evidence wherein virologists claim that a virus exists and causes illness can be achieved, repeatedly, without any human sample (meaning no possible source of a virus) present.
So what does that mean about the foundational claims of virology, of which all of the medical tyranny, much of allopathy, and the entire shot schedule was built upon?
I’ll let you think about the implications. 😉
With multiple independent labs, we’ve conducted the exact same experiments as are conducted by virologists — wherein they claim the results of the experiment demonstrate both the presence and pathogenicity of a virus, except we DID NOT have any human sample (meaning no possible source of a virus) and we achieved the same results, repeatedly.
Think about what that means for virology’s foundational “evidence.”
We conducted the exact same cell-culture isolation technique 90 times, EXCEPT we DID NOT include a human sample (which they say contains viruses).
We used one of the most robust cell lines — Human Embryonic Kidney Cells, with the exact same antibiotic and serum concentration.
Each time, we achieved the exact same cytopathic effect (CPE, or cellular breakdown). This CPE is what virologists point to as proof of viruses. And we did it multiple times, without any human sample — meaning no possible source of a “virus” — and got the exact same results.
A separate independent lab then conducted Transmission Electron Microscopy on the samples atter CPE.
In the TEM images, we found:
HIV (same size, shape)
SARS-CoV-2 (same size, shape)
Measles (same size, shape)
Again, this is without ANY human sample at all, which means no possible source of any “virus.”
So, in layman’s terms, what does all of this mean?
This means that the foundational evidence wherein virologists claim that a virus exists and causes illness can be achieved, repeatedly, without any human sample (meaning no possible source of a virus) present.
So what does that mean about the foundational claims of virology, of which all of the medical tyranny, much of allopathy, and the entire shot schedule was built upon?
I’ll let you think about the implications. 😉
